This page has a free BPSC TRE 4.0 mock test of 120 General Studies questions, written on the Part II pattern of Advertisement No. 15/2026: elementary mathematics, mental ability, general awareness, general science, social science, the Indian national movement, and geography and environment, at the SCERT and NCERT textbook level the advertisement specifies. Candidates for classes 1 to 5 face 120 General Studies questions, so the whole test is their paper; candidates for classes 6 to 8, 9 to 10 and 11 to 12 face 40, so they can treat any two sections as a sitting. It is scored the way BPSC will score the real OMR sheet: +1, −1/3 for a wrong answer, and 0 only if you mark (E) Not attempted.
Before the test: the pattern of every class group, what Part II covers, how the Option E rule changes your attempt strategy, and the TRE 3.0 cut-offs that show what score the paper needs. For the vacancy split, eligibility and dates, see the TRE 4.0 exam guide.
TRE 4.0 at a glance
| Item | Detail |
|---|---|
| Advertisement | No. 15/2026 of 22 September 2026 (replaced No. 14/2026 of 18 August, which had a prelims-plus-mains design) |
| Posts | 33,320 school teachers: classes 1 to 5: 3,847; classes 6 to 8: 8,563; classes 9 to 10: 4,370; classes 11 to 12: 16,540 (32,388 advertised, 932 added by corrigendum in October) |
| Applications | 25 September to 3 November 2026 (extended from 26 October); about 9.4 lakh applications had been filed by 26 October |
| Selection | One objective written exam, then document verification; no interview. “One candidate, one result”: a candidate is appointed to one post only |
| Paper | 150 questions, 150 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes, OMR sheet with five bubbles |
| Part II General Studies | 120 questions for classes 1 to 5; 40 questions for classes 6 to 8, 9 to 10 and 11 to 12 |
| Negative marking | −1/3 mark for a wrong answer and for a blank question; (E) Not attempted scores 0 |
| Minimum qualifying marks | UR 40 per cent; BC 36.5; EBC 34; SC, ST, women and candidates with disabilities 32 |
| Exam date | Not announced as of 8 November 2026; coaching sites expect December 2026 to January 2027. Admit cards not released |
| Last exam | TRE 3.0, 19 to 22 July 2024, 87,774 posts, no negative marking |
Exam pattern: where General Studies sits in each paper
Every class group writes one paper of 150 questions for 150 marks in 2 hours 30 minutes. Part I (Language) is qualifying, with 30 per cent needed, and does not count in the merit list. The merit list is built from Part II and Part III, so for a primary teacher General Studies is the entire scoring paper, and for the other groups it is a third of it.
| Class group | Part I Language (qualifying) / Part II General Studies / Part III Subject |
|---|---|
| Classes 1 to 5 | 30 / 120 / none |
| Classes 6 to 8 | 30 / 40 / 80 |
| Classes 9 to 10 (incl. special school) | 30 / 40 / 80 |
| Classes 11 to 12 | 30 / 40 / 80 |
The 120 questions here are split in the proportion a primary paper is expected to follow: mathematics and mental ability 35, general awareness 20, general science 20, social science 15, national movement 15, geography and environment 15.
Part II syllabus
Classes 1 to 5: elementary mathematics, mental ability, general awareness, general science, social science, the Indian national movement, geography and environment. The advertisement says the questions come from the SCERT and NCERT textbooks of classes 1 to 5, set with the qualification required for the post in mind, which in practice means up to the class 10 level.
Classes 6 to 8, 9 to 10 and 11 to 12: elementary mathematics, general awareness, general science, the Indian national movement and geography, drawn from the syllabus of the classes you will teach. Mental ability and a separate social science head are not listed for these groups, but Bihar general knowledge and current affairs appear under general awareness in every group.
In TRE 3.0 the General Studies part leaned on Bihar: its rivers, districts, festivals, schemes and history, plus the Constitution, basic science and arithmetic of the class 8 to 10 level. The test below keeps the same weighting.
Negative marking and Option E: how the score works
TRE 4.0 is the first teacher recruitment to carry BPSC’s 2026 OMR rule. Each question has five bubbles. A, B, C or D is your answer; E means Not attempted. A wrong answer costs one-third of a mark, and so does a question left completely blank, so the only free skip is a marked E. Two things follow. First, decide on every question: guess only when you can rule out two options, otherwise mark E. Second, budget the last five minutes to fill E on anything you have not reached. Worked examples are on the negative marking page.
The minimum qualifying marks are 40 per cent for Unreserved, 36.5 per cent for BC, 34 per cent for EBC and 32 per cent for SC, ST, women and candidates with disabilities. Selection is by merit among those who clear the minimum, so the real target is the cut-off, not the floor.
What score to aim for: TRE 3.0 cut-offs
TRE 3.0 (July 2024) is the closest guide to the marks a General Studies paper must produce. The cut-offs below are the merit marks published with the results of 15 November, 16 December and 26 December 2024 for a few of the largest posts; the qualifying language part is not counted in them. A primary candidate’s merit rests on General Studies alone, which is why the 1 to 5 cut-off is the one to read against this test.
| Post (TRE 3.0, 2024) | UR / UR women / EWS / BC / EBC / SC / ST |
|---|---|
| Classes 1 to 5, General (Education Department) | 81 / 70 / 74 / 74 / 67 / 39 / 39 |
| Classes 6 to 8, Mathematics and Science | 92 / 82 / 88 / 89 / 85 / 46 / 42 |
| Classes 6 to 8, Social Science | 75 / 68 / 71 / 73 / 68 / 57 / 53 |
| Classes 6 to 8, Hindi | 90 / 88 / 79 / 81 / 70 / 39 / 47 |
| Classes 9 to 10, Mathematics | 102 / 92 / 101 / 102 / 99 / 76 / 51 |
| Classes 9 to 10, Science | 73 / 73 / 70 / 70 / 63 / 43 / 44 |
| Classes 9 to 10, Social Science | 83 / 75 / 81 / 81 / 77 / 69 / 66 |
| Classes 11 to 12, Hindi | 88 / 88 / 84 / 83 / 77 / 53 / 50 |
| Classes 11 to 12, Mathematics | 83 / 66 / 63 / 69 / 61 / 39 / – |
Read the first row as the target for this test: an Unreserved primary candidate needed 81 of the 120 General Studies marks in 2024, when there was no negative marking, so roughly 68 per cent of the questions right. With the one-third penalty, the same net score needs a better hit rate or a stricter Option E policy: 90 right, 15 wrong and 15 marked E gives 85; 95 right and 25 wrong gives 86.7; 85 right, 35 wrong gives 73.3. The 1 to 5 General cut-off rose from 67 in 2023 to 81 in 2024 as candidates got used to the paper. In TRE 3.0, 1,16,193 candidates appeared for classes 1 to 5 and 21,911 were selected against 25,505 posts; for classes 6 to 8, 1,59,723 appeared and 16,989 were selected against 18,973 posts. Posts went unfilled because candidates failed to reach the minimum marks, not for want of applicants, which is the case for a thorough General Studies preparation.
How to use this mock test
- Primary (classes 1 to 5): take all 120 questions in 120 minutes, the time a 150-question, 150-minute paper leaves for Part II after a quick Part I.
- Classes 6 to 12: take two sections (about 40 questions) in 40 minutes, then another two the next day; the mathematics section is worth doing by every group.
- Use the E button honestly. Your score at the end is the OMR score, with the one-third deductions applied, so it tells you how your guessing policy performs.
- Every question opens an explanation with the fact behind it. Where a question has a Bihar angle, the explanation gives the pan-India fact too, since the paper asks both ways.
BPSC TRE 4.0 General Studies mock test: 120 questions
BPSC TRE 4.0 General Studies Mock Test
120 questions · Part II pattern (classes 1 to 5) · 120 minutes · +1, −1/3, E = 0
Tap an option: it locks, turns green or red, and the explanation opens. Choose (E) Not attempted when you would only be guessing, as you would bubble E on the OMR sheet.
+1 correct · −1/3 wrong · 0 (E) not attempted
Elementary mathematics20 questions
1. The LCM of 12, 15 and 20 is:
Show answer
Answer: (A) 60
12 = 2^2 x 3, 15 = 3 x 5, 20 = 2^2 x 5. Taking the highest powers: 2^2 x 3 x 5 = 60.
2. The HCF of 84 and 126 is:
Show answer
Answer: (C) 42
84 = 2^2 x 3 x 7 and 126 = 2 x 3^2 x 7. Common factors with the lowest powers: 2 x 3 x 7 = 42.
3. What is 15 per cent of 360?
Show answer
Answer: (C) 54
10 per cent of 360 is 36 and 5 per cent is 18; together 54.
4. A shopkeeper buys an article for Rs 400 and sells it for Rs 460. The profit per cent is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 15 per cent
Profit = 460 – 400 = Rs 60. Profit per cent = 60/400 x 100 = 15 per cent.
5. The simple interest on Rs 5,000 at 8 per cent per annum for 3 years is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) Rs 1,200
SI = P x R x T / 100 = 5000 x 8 x 3 / 100 = Rs 1,200.
6. The average of the first ten natural numbers is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 5.5
Sum of 1 to 10 = 55; 55/10 = 5.5.
7. A train 150 m long passes a pole in 10 seconds. Its speed is:
Show answer
Answer: (C) 54 km/h
Speed = 150/10 = 15 m/s = 15 x 18/5 = 54 km/h.
8. If the ratio of two numbers is 3 : 5 and their sum is 96, the larger number is:
Show answer
Answer: (C) 60
Total parts 8; one part = 96/8 = 12; larger number = 5 x 12 = 60.
9. The area of a rectangle is 96 sq cm and its length is 12 cm. Its perimeter is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 40 cm
Breadth = 96/12 = 8 cm. Perimeter = 2(12 + 8) = 40 cm.
10. The sum of the interior angles of a hexagon is:
Show answer
Answer: (C) 720 degrees
(n – 2) x 180 = 4 x 180 = 720 degrees for a six-sided polygon.
11. Which of the following is a prime number?
Show answer
Answer: (D) 97
51 = 3 x 17, 57 = 3 x 19, 87 = 3 x 29. 97 has no factor other than 1 and itself.
12. The value of 2/5 + 3/4 is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 23/20
LCM of 5 and 4 is 20: 8/20 + 15/20 = 23/20.
13. A man walks 4 km north, then 3 km east. How far is he from the starting point?
Show answer
Answer: (A) 5 km
The two legs form a right angle, so the distance is the hypotenuse: sqrt(16 + 9) = 5 km.
14. If 8 workers finish a job in 15 days, how many days will 12 workers take at the same rate?
Show answer
Answer: (C) 10
Work = 8 x 15 = 120 worker-days; 120/12 = 10 days.
15. The square root of 2,025 is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 45
45 x 45 = 2,025 (40 x 40 = 1,600; 50 x 50 = 2,500; the unit digit 5 points to 45).
16. A number when divided by 7 leaves remainder 3. What is the remainder when twice the number is divided by 7?
Show answer
Answer: (D) 6
If N = 7k + 3, then 2N = 14k + 6, which leaves remainder 6 on division by 7.
17. The volume of a cube whose total surface area is 150 sq cm is:
Show answer
Answer: (C) 125 cubic cm
6a^2 = 150 gives a^2 = 25, a = 5 cm; volume = 5^3 = 125 cubic cm.
18. A clock shows 3:00. The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 90 degrees
Each hour mark is 30 degrees apart; at 3:00 the hands are three marks apart: 90 degrees.
19. Which decimal is equal to 7/8?
Show answer
Answer: (C) 0.875
7/8 = 0.875 (1/8 = 0.125, times 7).
20. The price of a book was raised from Rs 250 to Rs 300. The percentage increase is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 20 per cent
Increase = 50; 50/250 x 100 = 20 per cent.
Mental ability and reasoning15 questions
21. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
Show answer
Answer: (B) 42
Differences are 4, 6, 8, 10, so the next difference is 12: 30 + 12 = 42 (the terms are n(n+1)).
22. Find the odd one out: 3, 5, 7, 9, 11
Show answer
Answer: (C) 9
All except 9 are prime numbers; 9 = 3 x 3.
23. If CAT is coded as DBU, then DOG is coded as:
Show answer
Answer: (D) EPH
Each letter moves one step forward: D to E, O to P, G to H.
24. In a certain code, 1 = A, 2 = B and so on. What does 2-9-8-1-18 spell?
Show answer
Answer: (A) BIHAR
2 = B, 9 = I, 8 = H, 1 = A, 18 = R.
25. Pointing to a photograph, Ravi says, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son." How is the woman related to Ravi?
Show answer
Answer: (D) Sister
The grandfather's only son is Ravi's father, so his daughter is Ravi's sister.
26. A is taller than B, B is taller than C, and D is taller than A. Who is the shortest?
Show answer
Answer: (A) C
The order is D > A > B > C, so C is the shortest.
27. Which letter comes next: A, C, F, J, O, ?
Show answer
Answer: (D) U
The gaps grow by one each time (2, 3, 4, 5), so the next gap is 6: O + 6 = U.
28. If today is Monday, what day will it be after 100 days?
Show answer
Answer: (A) Wednesday
100 = 14 weeks + 2 days, so two days after Monday: Wednesday.
29. A man faces north and turns 90 degrees clockwise, then 180 degrees anticlockwise. Which direction does he face now?
Show answer
Answer: (D) West
North, then clockwise 90 degrees to east, then anticlockwise 180 degrees to west.
30. Find the missing number: 4, 9, 16, 25, ?, 49
Show answer
Answer: (C) 36
These are squares of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7; the missing term is 6^2 = 36.
31. How many triangles are there in a square divided by both its diagonals?
Show answer
Answer: (C) 8
Four small triangles, plus four larger triangles each made of two adjacent small ones: 8 in all.
32. Statement: All teachers are graduates. Some graduates are writers. Conclusion that definitely follows:
Show answer
Answer: (A) Some graduates are teachers
From "all teachers are graduates" it follows that some graduates are teachers. Nothing definite links teachers and writers.
33. A watch gains 5 minutes every hour. If set right at 8 am, what time will it show at 12 noon the same day?
Show answer
Answer: (B) 12:20 pm
In 4 hours it gains 4 x 5 = 20 minutes, so it shows 12:20 pm.
34. Water : Thirst :: Food : ?
Show answer
Answer: (D) Hunger
Water removes thirst as food removes hunger.
35. In a row of 40 students, Meena is 15th from the left. What is her position from the right?
Show answer
Answer: (C) 26th
Position from the right = 40 – 15 + 1 = 26th.
General awareness (India and Bihar)20 questions
36. Bihar Diwas (Bihar Day) is celebrated on:
Show answer
Answer: (A) 22 March
Bihar was carved out of the Bengal Presidency on 22 March 1912; the state has marked Bihar Diwas on that date since 2010.
37. The state bird of Bihar is the:
Show answer
Answer: (D) House sparrow
Bihar declared the house sparrow (gauraiya) its state bird; the mango is the state fruit and the peepal the state tree.
38. Nalanda Mahavihara, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Bihar, was a centre of learning founded during the rule of the:
Show answer
Answer: (A) Guptas
Nalanda was founded in the fifth century under the Gupta ruler Kumaragupta I and flourished till the twelfth century; it was inscribed by UNESCO in 2016.
39. The Chhath festival of Bihar is dedicated to:
Show answer
Answer: (D) The Sun god and Chhathi Maiya
Chhath is a four-day worship of Surya and Chhathi Maiya, with arghya offered to the setting and rising sun at river ghats.
40. The Mahabodhi Temple at Bodh Gaya marks the place where:
Show answer
Answer: (A) The Buddha attained enlightenment
The Buddha attained enlightenment under the Bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya; the temple was inscribed by UNESCO in 2002.
41. How many districts does Bihar have?
Show answer
Answer: (C) 38
Bihar has 38 districts grouped in 9 divisions; the newest is Arwal, created in 2001.
42. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act applies to children aged:
Show answer
Answer: (D) 6 to 14 years
The RTE Act 2009, in force from 1 April 2010, gives every child aged 6 to 14 the right to free elementary education in a neighbourhood school.
43. The National Education Policy 2020 replaces the 10+2 school structure with:
Show answer
Answer: (A) 5+3+3+4
NEP 2020 proposes a 5+3+3+4 design: foundational (ages 3 to 8), preparatory (8 to 11), middle (11 to 14) and secondary (14 to 18).
44. The "Mission Daksh" programme of the Bihar Education Department was launched to:
Show answer
Answer: (D) Give remedial classes to weak students
Mission Daksh (2023) identifies students in classes 3 to 8 who are behind in Hindi, English and maths and gives them remedial teaching after school hours.
45. Who is the author of the Indian national anthem "Jana Gana Mana"?
Show answer
Answer: (A) Rabindranath Tagore
Tagore wrote and composed it in Bengali in 1911; the Constituent Assembly adopted it as the national anthem on 24 January 1950.
46. The Madhubani painting tradition belongs to which region of Bihar?
Show answer
Answer: (D) Mithila
Madhubani (Mithila) painting comes from the Mithila region around Madhubani and Darbhanga; it has a geographical indication tag.
47. Which team won the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2026, hosted by India and Sri Lanka?
Show answer
Answer: (A) India
India beat New Zealand by 96 runs in the final; Sanju Samson was named player of the tournament.
48. The headquarters of the Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB) is at:
Show answer
Answer: (D) Patna
BSEB, which conducts the class 10 (matric) and class 12 (intermediate) examinations of Bihar, is headquartered in Patna.
49. In June 2026 India won the SAFF Women's Championship by beating which team 3-1 in the final?
Show answer
Answer: (A) Bangladesh
The final was played on 6 June 2026; India beat Bangladesh 3-1 to take the South Asian women's title.
50. Teachers' Day in India is celebrated on 5 September, the birthday of:
Show answer
Answer: (D) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
Dr Radhakrishnan, India's first Vice-President and second President, was a teacher of philosophy; his birthday has been Teachers' Day since 1962.
51. Francis Halzen, one of the 2026 Nobel laureates in Physics, is best known for leading which observatory?
Show answer
Answer: (A) IceCube Neutrino Observatory
Halzen led the IceCube Neutrino Observatory at the South Pole, which detects high-energy neutrinos from space. The first Indian Physics Nobel was C. V. Raman's in 1930.
52. The famous Sonepur fair of Bihar is held on the banks of the:
Show answer
Answer: (D) Ganga and Gandak
The Sonepur (Harihar Kshetra) cattle fair starts on Kartik Purnima at the confluence of the Ganga and the Gandak in Saran district.
53. "Vidyalaya Chalein Hum" and the Chief Minister Balika Cycle Yojana in Bihar aim mainly at:
Show answer
Answer: (A) School enrolment and attendance
Both target enrolment and retention in schools; the cycle scheme (2006) gives girls of class 9 money to buy a bicycle and sharply raised girls' attendance.
54. The Bihar Museum, which displays the Didarganj Yakshi, is located in:
Show answer
Answer: (D) Patna
The Bihar Museum on Bailey Road, Patna, opened in 2015 and 2017; the Didarganj Yakshi is a Mauryan-period sandstone sculpture found in 1917.
55. Which article of the Constitution of India made education for children aged 6 to 14 a fundamental right?
Show answer
Answer: (A) Article 21A
Article 21A was inserted by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002; Article 45 now directs the state to provide early childhood care for children below six.
General science20 questions
56. Which gas do plants absorb from the air for photosynthesis?
Show answer
Answer: (D) Carbon dioxide
Plants take in carbon dioxide through stomata and, with water and sunlight, make glucose, releasing oxygen.
57. The normal human body temperature is about:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 37 degrees Celsius
Normal body temperature is close to 37 degrees Celsius (98.6 degrees Fahrenheit).
58. The deficiency of vitamin C causes:
Show answer
Answer: (A) Scurvy
Scurvy (bleeding gums, poor wound healing) results from lack of vitamin C; rickets is vitamin D, beriberi vitamin B1, night blindness vitamin A.
59. The number of bones in the adult human body is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 206
An adult has 206 bones; a newborn has about 300, many of which fuse with growth.
60. The chemical formula of common salt is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) NaCl
Common salt is sodium chloride, NaCl.
61. Sound cannot travel through:
Show answer
Answer: (C) Vacuum
Sound needs a material medium; in a vacuum there are no particles to carry the vibration.
62. The unit of electric current is the:
Show answer
Answer: (D) Ampere
Current is measured in amperes; volts measure potential difference, ohms resistance and watts power.
63. Which blood group is called the universal donor?
Show answer
Answer: (A) O negative
O negative red cells carry neither A, B nor Rh antigens, so they can be given to any recipient in an emergency.
64. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
Show answer
Answer: (B) Mars
Mars looks red because of iron oxide (rust) on its surface.
65. The process by which water changes to vapour at any temperature is called:
Show answer
Answer: (C) Evaporation
Evaporation happens from the surface at all temperatures; boiling happens throughout the liquid at the boiling point.
66. The pH of pure water at 25 degrees Celsius is:
Show answer
Answer: (C) 7
Pure water is neutral, pH 7; acids are below 7 and bases above 7.
67. Which part of the plant conducts water from the roots to the leaves?
Show answer
Answer: (D) Xylem
Xylem carries water and minerals upwards; phloem carries food made in the leaves to the rest of the plant.
68. The gas used in filling balloons that float, because it is lighter than air and does not burn, is:
Show answer
Answer: (A) Helium
Helium is lighter than air and inert; hydrogen is lighter still but highly flammable.
69. The speed of light in vacuum is about:
Show answer
Answer: (A) 3 x 10^5 km/s
Light travels at about 3 x 10^8 m/s, which is 3 x 10^5 km/s (300,000 km per second).
70. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
Show answer
Answer: (B) Coal
Coal, petroleum and natural gas are fossil fuels that took millions of years to form and cannot be replaced.
71. Insulin, which controls blood sugar, is produced by the:
Show answer
Answer: (C) Pancreas
The beta cells of the pancreas secrete insulin; its lack or ineffectiveness causes diabetes.
72. The image formed by a plane mirror is:
Show answer
Answer: (D) Virtual and erect
A plane mirror gives a virtual, erect, laterally inverted image of the same size as the object.
73. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?
Show answer
Answer: (A) Mercury
Mercury is the only metal that is liquid at ordinary room temperature; it was long used in thermometers.
74. The disease malaria is spread by the bite of the:
Show answer
Answer: (B) Female Anopheles mosquito
The female Anopheles mosquito carries the Plasmodium parasite; the female Aedes spreads dengue and chikungunya.
75. Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
Show answer
Answer: (C) Copper
Metals such as copper and aluminium conduct electricity; rubber, glass and dry wood are insulators.
Social science: polity, economy and schemes15 questions
76. The Constitution of India came into force on:
Show answer
Answer: (D) 26 January 1950
It was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26 January 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day.
77. How many Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51A of the Constitution?
Show answer
Answer: (C) 11
Ten duties were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976); the 86th Amendment (2002) added the eleventh, on parents providing education to children aged 6 to 14.
78. The Panchayati Raj system got constitutional status through the:
Show answer
Answer: (A) 73rd Amendment
The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule; the 74th did the same for urban local bodies.
79. Bihar reserves what share of Panchayat seats for women?
Show answer
Answer: (C) 50 per cent
Bihar was the first state to reserve 50 per cent of Panchayat seats for women, in 2006.
80. The minimum age to vote in Lok Sabha elections in India is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 18 years
The 61st Amendment (1988) lowered the voting age from 21 to 18.
81. How many members does the Bihar Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) have?
Show answer
Answer: (B) 243
The Bihar Vidhan Sabha has 243 elected members; the Vidhan Parishad (upper house) has 75.
82. The Governor of a state is appointed by the:
Show answer
Answer: (B) President of India
Under Article 155 the Governor is appointed by the President and holds office at the President's pleasure.
83. "Secular" and "Socialist" were added to the Preamble of the Constitution by the:
Show answer
Answer: (C) 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, added "socialist", "secular" and "integrity" to the Preamble.
84. The Reserve Bank of India was established in:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1935
The RBI began operations on 1 April 1935 under the RBI Act, 1934, and was nationalised in 1949.
85. Which tax replaced most indirect taxes in India from 1 July 2017?
Show answer
Answer: (D) GST
The Goods and Services Tax, under the 101st Constitutional Amendment, merged central excise, service tax, VAT and other levies.
86. The lowest unit of rural local government in Bihar is the:
Show answer
Answer: (A) Gram Panchayat
The three tiers are Gram Panchayat (village), Panchayat Samiti (block) and Zila Parishad (district); a Nagar Panchayat is an urban body.
87. The Chief Minister of a state is appointed by the:
Show answer
Answer: (B) Governor
Under Article 164 the Governor appoints the Chief Minister, who is normally the leader of the majority in the Assembly.
88. "Harijan" was a term popularised by Mahatma Gandhi for:
Show answer
Answer: (C) Dalits
Gandhi used Harijan ("people of God") for the so-called untouchable castes and launched the weekly Harijan in 1933.
89. The Mid-Day Meal scheme in government schools is now called:
Show answer
Answer: (D) PM POSHAN
The scheme was renamed PM POSHAN (Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman) in September 2021; it covers children of classes 1 to 8 and pre-primary.
90. Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?
Show answer
Answer: (A) The Vice-President
The Vice-President of India is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Article 64).
Indian national movement15 questions
91. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 by:
Show answer
Answer: (B) A. O. Hume
Allan Octavian Hume, a retired civil servant, founded the Congress; W. C. Bonnerjee presided over its first session in Bombay.
92. Mahatma Gandhi's first satyagraha in India was at:
Show answer
Answer: (C) Champaran
Champaran (Bihar), 1917, against the tinkathia indigo system, was Gandhi's first satyagraha in India.
93. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1919
On 13 April 1919 General Dyer's troops fired on a peaceful gathering in Amritsar protesting the Rowlatt Act.
94. The Dandi March of 1930 was started to break the law on:
Show answer
Answer: (D) Salt
Gandhi walked from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi (12 March to 6 April 1930) and made salt, starting the Civil Disobedience Movement.
95. The slogan "Do or Die" was given during the:
Show answer
Answer: (A) Quit India Movement
Gandhi gave "Karo ya Maro" at the Bombay session of the AICC on 8 August 1942, launching the Quit India Movement.
96. Who among the following was the first President of India and a leader from Bihar?
Show answer
Answer: (B) Dr Rajendra Prasad
Dr Rajendra Prasad of Siwan district presided over the Constituent Assembly and was President from 1950 to 1962.
97. The Partition of Bengal, which triggered the Swadeshi Movement, happened in:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1905
Lord Curzon partitioned Bengal on 16 October 1905; the partition was annulled in 1911.
98. Who founded the Azad Hind Fauj (Indian National Army) as it fought in 1943 to 45?
Show answer
Answer: (C) Subhas Chandra Bose
Rash Behari Bose set up the INA in 1942; Subhas Chandra Bose reorganised and led it from 1943 with the call "Dilli Chalo".
99. The Simon Commission (1928) was boycotted because:
Show answer
Answer: (D) It had no Indian member
The all-British commission on constitutional reform had no Indian member, and Indians met it with "Simon, go back".
100. The 1942 Quit India Movement in Patna is remembered for the martyrdom of seven students at the:
Show answer
Answer: (A) Patna Secretariat
On 11 August 1942 seven students were shot while trying to hoist the national flag on the Patna Secretariat; the Shaheed Smarak stands there.
101. Kunwar Singh of Jagdishpur led the 1857 revolt in the region of:
Show answer
Answer: (B) Bhojpur (Arrah)
Kunwar Singh, about 80 years old, led the uprising around Arrah and Jagdishpur in 1857 and defeated the British at Jagdishpur in April 1858.
102. The Lucknow Pact of 1916 was signed between the Congress and the:
Show answer
Answer: (C) Muslim League
At Lucknow the Congress and the Muslim League agreed on joint constitutional demands; the Congress also reunited its moderate and extremist wings.
103. Who gave the slogan "Inquilab Zindabad"?
Show answer
Answer: (D) Hasrat Mohani
The Urdu poet Hasrat Mohani coined "Inquilab Zindabad" in 1921; Bhagat Singh and the HSRA made it famous.
104. Jayaprakash Narayan, the leader of the 1974 movement in Bihar, was born at:
Show answer
Answer: (A) Sitab Diara
JP was born in 1902 at Sitab Diara, a village on the Saran (Bihar) and Ballia (Uttar Pradesh) border.
105. The Cabinet Mission came to India in:
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1946
The Cabinet Mission (Pethick-Lawrence, Cripps, Alexander) arrived in March 1946 and proposed the Constituent Assembly and an interim government.
Geography and environment15 questions
106. The Ganga enters Bihar in which district?
Show answer
Answer: (B) Buxar
The Ganga enters Bihar at Chausa in Buxar district and leaves it near Bhagalpur and Katihar into Jharkhand and West Bengal.
107. Which river is called the "Sorrow of Bihar"?
Show answer
Answer: (C) Kosi
The Kosi's frequent course changes and floods in north Bihar earned it the name; the 2008 breach at Kusaha displaced millions.
108. Valmiki National Park, Bihar's only tiger reserve, is in the district of:
Show answer
Answer: (D) West Champaran
Valmiki Tiger Reserve lies in West Champaran on the Nepal border, in the Gandak basin.
109. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of these Indian states?
Show answer
Answer: (A) Madhya Pradesh
It crosses eight states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.
110. The highest mountain peak in India is:
Show answer
Answer: (B) Kangchenjunga
Kangchenjunga (8,586 m) on the Sikkim-Nepal border is India's highest; Everest is in Nepal.
111. The soil most common in the Gangetic plain of Bihar is:
Show answer
Answer: (C) Alluvial soil
Alluvium deposited by the Ganga and its tributaries covers most of Bihar; it is fertile and suited to rice, wheat and maize.
112. Which state is the largest producer of litchi in India?
Show answer
Answer: (D) Bihar
Bihar grows about two-fifths of India's litchi; the Shahi litchi of Muzaffarpur has a GI tag.
113. The Kanwar Lake (Kabartal) bird sanctuary, a Ramsar site, is in:
Show answer
Answer: (A) Begusarai
Kabartal in Begusarai became Bihar's first Ramsar wetland in 2020; it is Asia's largest freshwater oxbow lake.
114. The layer of the atmosphere in which most weather occurs is the:
Show answer
Answer: (B) Troposphere
The troposphere, the lowest layer up to about 12 km, holds nearly all water vapour and weather.
115. The ozone layer protects the earth from:
Show answer
Answer: (C) Ultraviolet radiation
Ozone in the stratosphere absorbs most of the sun's ultraviolet radiation; CFCs thin it, which the Montreal Protocol (1987) controls.
116. Which gas is the largest contributor to the greenhouse effect caused by human activity?
Show answer
Answer: (D) Carbon dioxide
Carbon dioxide from burning fossil fuels is the main human-caused greenhouse gas, followed by methane.
117. The Rohtasgarh fort and the Kaimur plateau are in the part of Bihar lying:
Show answer
Answer: (A) South-west, bordering Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand
The Kaimur plateau in Rohtas and Kaimur districts is Bihar's hilly south-western edge.
118. World Environment Day is observed on:
Show answer
Answer: (B) 5 June
5 June, since 1973; 22 April is Earth Day, 16 September Ozone Day and 21 March World Forestry Day.
119. Which of the following is the longest river of India flowing entirely within the country?
Show answer
Answer: (C) Ganga
The Ganga runs about 2,525 km from Gangotri to the Bay of Bengal; the Godavari (1,465 km) is the longest peninsular river.
120. The Rajgir hills, Bihar's hot springs and the ropeway to the Vishwa Shanti Stupa are in the district of:
Show answer
Answer: (D) Nalanda
Rajgir, the old Magadhan capital Rajagriha, is in Nalanda district.
Your result
Automatic scoring needs JavaScript. Until it runs, tally by hand: score = correct − (wrong ÷ 3).
Finished, or stopping here? This counts every question you have answered so far.
Show the full answer key
1 A · 2 C · 3 C · 4 B · 5 B · 6 B · 7 C · 8 C · 9 B · 10 C · 11 D · 12 B · 13 A · 14 C · 15 B · 16 D · 17 C · 18 B · 19 C · 20 B · 21 B · 22 C · 23 D · 24 A · 25 D · 26 A · 27 D · 28 A · 29 D · 30 C · 31 C · 32 A · 33 B · 34 D · 35 C · 36 A · 37 D · 38 A · 39 D · 40 A · 41 C · 42 D · 43 A · 44 D · 45 A · 46 D · 47 A · 48 D · 49 A · 50 D · 51 A · 52 D · 53 A · 54 D · 55 A · 56 D · 57 B · 58 A · 59 B · 60 B · 61 C · 62 D · 63 A · 64 B · 65 C · 66 C · 67 D · 68 A · 69 A · 70 B · 71 C · 72 D · 73 A · 74 B · 75 C · 76 D · 77 C · 78 A · 79 C · 80 B · 81 B · 82 B · 83 C · 84 B · 85 D · 86 A · 87 B · 88 C · 89 D · 90 A · 91 B · 92 C · 93 B · 94 D · 95 A · 96 B · 97 B · 98 C · 99 D · 100 A · 101 B · 102 C · 103 D · 104 A · 105 C · 106 B · 107 C · 108 D · 109 A · 110 B · 111 C · 112 D · 113 A · 114 B · 115 C · 116 D · 117 A · 118 B · 119 C · 120 D
After the mock test
If you scored under 60 per cent on a section, read that section’s explanations in one sitting; they are written as revision notes. Then move to the full-length papers: the BPSC prelims mock test series is harder than TRE General Studies, which is good preparation for the Bihar and current affairs questions, and the Bihar special test covers the state facts the paper leans on. Candidates for classes 6 to 12 should spend the larger share of their time on Part III, which is two-thirds of their merit marks.
Status on 8 November 2026: applications closed on 3 November. BPSC has not announced the exam date; it said in the advertisement that the date would be notified separately, and the expectation reported by coaching sites is December 2026 or January 2027, with admit cards about a week before. Previous rounds give the rhythm: TRE 1.0 was examined on 24 to 26 August 2023 and its result came on 19 October 2023 (1,22,324 qualified); TRE 2.0 was examined on 7 to 15 December 2023 with results from 22 December; TRE 3.0 was examined on 19 to 22 July 2024 after the 15 March paper was cancelled for a leak, with results on 15 November (classes 1 to 8), 16 December (9 to 10) and 26 December 2024 (11 to 12). This page will be updated when the schedule is out.
Frequently asked questions
How many General Studies questions are there in BPSC TRE 4.0?
120 for classes 1 to 5, where General Studies is the whole scoring paper, and 40 for classes 6 to 8, 9 to 10 and 11 to 12, where the other 80 scoring questions are on the subject. Every paper also has 30 qualifying language questions, making 150 in all.
Is there negative marking in TRE 4.0?
Yes. Advertisement No. 15/2026 deducts one-third of a mark for a wrong answer, and a question left blank is also penalised; only a question marked (E) Not attempted scores zero. TRE 3.0 in 2024 had no negative marking, so old practice habits need changing.
What was the TRE 3.0 cut-off for classes 1 to 5?
81 marks for Unreserved candidates in the general (Education Department) primary post, 70 for Unreserved women, 74 for EWS and BC, 67 for EBC and 39 for SC and ST, out of the 120 General Studies marks counted for merit. The 2023 Unreserved cut-off had been 67.
When is the BPSC TRE 4.0 exam?
Not announced as of 8 November 2026. Applications closed on 3 November 2026 after an extension, and BPSC will notify the exam date and admit cards separately; coaching sites expect December 2026 or January 2027.
What is the syllabus of TRE 4.0 General Studies?
For classes 1 to 5: elementary mathematics, mental ability, general awareness, general science, social science, the Indian national movement, and geography and environment, from SCERT and NCERT textbooks. For classes 6 to 12: elementary mathematics, general awareness, general science, the Indian national movement and geography, at the level of the classes to be taught.
Related pages
- BPSC TRE 4.0 (2026): exam pattern, syllabus, dates and eligibility
- BPSC Head Teacher and Head Master mock test: 100 questions
- BPSC negative marking and the Option E rule
- Free BPSC mock test series: all tests
- Free mock tests for other BPSC exams
- Bihar special mock test: 100 Bihar GK questions
Sources
Checked 8 November 2026. The pattern, syllabus and scoring rule are from Advertisement No. 15/2026 as summarised in our TRE 4.0 guide; dates and cut-offs are from the reports listed.
- Physics Wallah, 22 September 2026: Advertisement No. 15/2026 re-announced, 32,388 posts, pattern and dates
- Careers360, October 2026: 932 posts added, total 33,320
- Careers360, 27 October 2026: application deadline extended to 3 November
- Careers360 (Hindi), 27 October 2026: changes in TRE 4.0, single exam, negative marking, one candidate one result
- Adda247, 3 November 2026: exam date expected December 2026 to January 2027; revised vacancy split
- Adda247, 27 October 2026: about 9.40 lakh applications
- ThePrint (PTI), 27 August 2026: TRE 4.0 to be held in a single phase
- Career Power: BPSC teacher cut-off marks, TRE 3.0 (2024) and 2023 tables
- Adda247: Bihar teacher cut-off, TRE 3.0 (2024)
- Careers360, 15 November 2024: TRE 3.0 results for classes 1 to 8, candidates appeared and selected
- Adda247, 20 July 2024: TRE 3.0 classes 1 to 5 exam analysis
- Careers360, 19 October 2023: TRE 1.0 result, 1,22,324 qualified