This page has a free BPSC Head Teacher and Head Master mock test of 100 questions, built on the pattern of the last two exams (28 and 29 June 2024): Part I General Studies in the BPSC style, with a Bihar weighting, and Part II on child development, pedagogy, the RTE Act, NEP 2020 and school management, the ground covered by the D.El.Ed and B.Ed syllabus parts of those papers. It is scored on the page, with an explanation for every question.
Before the test, the facts you need: the exam pattern of both posts, who was eligible in 2024, the syllabus, and the official cut-off marks from BPSC’s result notices of 1 November 2024. As of 6 November 2026 BPSC has not advertised a new Head Teacher or Head Master recruitment; the section at the end says what to watch for, including the Option E rule that will apply to any new exam.
BPSC Head Teacher and Head Master exams at a glance (2024)
Head Teacher (Pradhan Shikshak), primary schools
| Item | Detail |
|---|---|
| Advertisement | No. 25/2024, March 2024; 40,247 posts |
| Exam | 29 June 2024, 12 noon to 2:30 pm |
| Questions and marks | 150 questions, 150 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes |
| Part I | General Studies, questions 1 to 75 |
| Part II | D.El.Ed syllabus, questions 76 to 150 |
| Negative marking | None in 2024 |
| Result | 1 November 2024: 36,947 recommended |
| Pay | Rs 30,500 plus allowances |
Head Master (Pradhanadhyapak), higher secondary schools
| Item | Detail |
|---|---|
| Advertisement | No. 26/2024, March 2024; 6,061 posts |
| Exam | 28 June 2024, 12 noon to 2:30 pm |
| Questions and marks | 150 questions, 150 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes |
| Part I | General Studies, questions 1 to 100 |
| Part II | B.Ed syllabus, questions 101 to 150 |
| Negative marking | None in 2024 (0.25 per wrong answer in the 2022 exam) |
| Result | 1 November 2024: 5,971 recommended, plus 3 under the SC and ST Welfare Department |
| Pay | Rs 35,000 plus allowances |
Who could apply in 2024
Both posts were filled from serving teachers, not fresh graduates, which is why the papers tested school management as much as subject knowledge.
- Head Teacher: trained teachers of government primary schools (local-body teachers under the 2020 rules and teachers appointed under the 2023 state school teacher rules) with at least eight years of teaching service, aged up to 58 on 1 August 2024.
- Head Master: a postgraduate degree with at least 50 per cent (5 per cent less for reserved categories and women), B.Ed or its equivalent, and roughly 8 to 12 years of teaching experience depending on the type of school; age 31 to 47 for unreserved men, 50 for BC, EBC and unreserved women, 52 for SC and ST.
- Both exams were open to permanent residents of Bihar; the fee was Rs 750 (Rs 200 for SC, ST, women and candidates with disabilities).
Syllabus
Part I: General Studies (both exams)
General science; current events of national and international importance, with Bihar; the history of India and Bihar and the national movement; the geography of India and Bihar; the Constitution, political system, Panchayati Raj and development programmes; the economy of India and Bihar; elementary mathematics and mental ability. It is the BPSC prelims syllabus in a shorter paper, so the BPSC syllabus page and the prelims mock tests are the right practice.
Part II: Head Teacher (D.El.Ed syllabus)
Childhood and education in society; educational thinkers (Gandhi, Tagore, Gijubhai Badheka, Montessori, Jyotiba Phule, Zakir Husain, Krishnamurti, Dewey); child development and learning (Piaget, Vygotsky, Erikson, Kohlberg, Bowlby); early childhood care and education; school organisation and management, including the RTE Act 2009, inclusive practices and continuous and comprehensive evaluation; educational institutions from the cluster and block resource centres to SCERT, NCERT and NCTE; inclusion, diversity and gender; the National Curriculum Framework 2005, the Bihar Curriculum Framework 2008 and ICT in teaching.
Part II: Head Master (B.Ed syllabus)
Children and childhood in the context of Bihar; inequality, access and exclusion in schooling; school and identity; philosophical systems and their educational implications; learning and the learner; the characteristics of effective teachers; questioning, illustration and explanation as teaching skills; language in its social context; academic disciplines; gender studies; ideologies and educational vision. The 2024 paper also asked about measurement and evaluation, the Kothari Commission (1964 to 66), teaching models (concept attainment) and Indian educational thinkers.
Official cut-off marks, 2024 (out of 150)
From BPSC’s result notices of 1 November 2024. The Head Master cut-off was higher than the Head Teacher cut-off in every category, which fits a paper with 100 general studies questions against 75. The second figure BPSC prints for each category is the Part marks used as a tie-break; the cut-off itself is the total.
| Category | Head Teacher (Advt. 25/2024) | Head Master (Advt. 26/2024) |
|---|---|---|
| Unreserved | 67 | 85 |
| Unreserved (women) | 59 | 74 |
| EWS | 48 | 79 |
| EWS (women) | 48 | 63 |
| BC | 61 | 79 |
| BC (women) | 52 | 67 |
| EBC | 59 | 74 |
| EBC (women) | 49 | 57 |
| SC | 49 | 59 |
| SC (women) | 48 | 48 |
| ST | 48 | 48 |
| ST (women) | 48 | 48 |
| BCL (backward-class women) | 48 | 62 |
| Disabled: VI / DD / OH / MD | 48 / 48 / 52 / 48 | 48 / 48 / 67 / 56 |
| Grandchild of freedom fighter | 48 | 50 |
The floor of 48 marks is 32 per cent of 150, the minimum qualifying mark for SC, ST, women and candidates with disabilities; the general minimum was 40 per cent (60 marks), which the Head Teacher Unreserved cut-off of 67 only just cleared. In the 2022 Head Master exam, which had negative marking, only 421 of 13,055 candidates passed for 6,421 posts.
How to use this mock test
- The test has 100 questions: 50 General Studies (Part I) and 50 on child development, pedagogy, assessment and school management (Part II). Give yourself 100 minutes, the same one minute per question as the real 150-question, 150-minute paper.
- It is scored the way BPSC now scores its objective papers: +1 for a correct answer, −1/3 for a wrong one, 0 for (E) Not attempted. The 2024 papers had no negative marking, but any new exam will follow the 2026 OMR rule, so practise with it.
- A Head Teacher candidate should aim at 60 or more out of 100; a Head Master candidate at 70 or more, since that exam’s cut-offs were higher.
- Every question opens an explanation. Note the Part II explanations in particular: they state the rule or theory the question tests, which is what the paper setters vary from year to year.
BPSC Head Teacher and Head Master mock test: 100 questions
BPSC Head Teacher and Head Master Mock Test
100 questions · Part I General Studies 50 · Part II Pedagogy and school management 50 · 100 minutes
Tap an option: it locks, turns green or red, and the explanation opens. Choose (E) Not attempted when you would only be guessing, as you would bubble E on the OMR sheet.
+1 correct · −1/3 wrong · 0 (E) not attempted
Part I: History and culture of India and Bihar10 questions
1. The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was launched against the system of indigo cultivation known as:
Show answer
Answer: (A) Tinkathia
Under tinkathia, tenants had to grow indigo on 3 kathas of every bigha (3/20 of the holding). The Champaran Agrarian Act of 1918 abolished it after Gandhi's inquiry.
2. The Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (1929) was founded by:
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Answer: (B) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
Swami Sahajanand Saraswati founded it at the Sonepur fair in November 1929 and in 1936 became the first president of the All India Kisan Sabha.
3. Who was the first Chief Minister of Bihar after independence?
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Answer: (C) Shri Krishna Sinha
Shri Krishna Sinha ("Bihar Kesari") headed the government from 1946 until his death in 1961. Mohammad Yunus led a short interim ministry in 1937 as Premier.
4. The ancient university of Nalanda flourished mainly under which dynasty?
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Answer: (D) Both Gupta and Pala
Nalanda was founded under the Guptas (Kumaragupta I, 5th century) and reached its height under the Palas, who also founded Vikramshila and Odantapuri.
5. The 1857 revolt in Bihar was led by:
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Answer: (A) Babu Kunwar Singh
Babu Kunwar Singh of Jagdishpur, then about 80, led the Danapur sepoys from July 1857 and defeated Captain Le Grand near Jagdishpur on 23 April 1858, three days before his death.
6. The Quit India resolution was passed by the Congress on 8 August 1942 at:
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Answer: (B) Bombay
The AICC passed the resolution at Gowalia Tank Maidan, Bombay. In Patna, seven students were shot dead at the Secretariat on 11 August 1942 while hoisting the flag.
7. Which Mauryan emperor sent his son Mahendra and daughter Sanghamitra to Sri Lanka?
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Answer: (C) Ashoka
Ashoka sent Mahendra and Sanghamitra to Sri Lanka to spread Buddhism after the Third Buddhist Council at Pataliputra.
8. Mahatma Buddha attained enlightenment at:
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Answer: (D) Bodh Gaya
Buddha attained enlightenment under the Bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya in Bihar; his first sermon was at Sarnath and he died at Kushinagar.
9. Who among the following founded the Haryanka dynasty of Magadha?
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Answer: (A) Bimbisara
Bimbisara founded the Haryanka dynasty with its capital at Rajagriha (Rajgir). His son Ajatashatru fortified Pataligrama, and Udayin made Pataliputra the capital.
10. The Bihar and Orissa province was separated from Bengal in:
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Answer: (B) 1912
The new province was announced at the Delhi Durbar of 12 December 1911 and created on 22 March 1912, now celebrated as Bihar Diwas. Orissa was separated in 1936.
Part I: Geography10 questions
11. Which river is known as the "Sorrow of Bihar"?
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Answer: (C) Kosi
The Kosi changes course often and floods north Bihar; the Kosi barrage at Bhimnagar (1963) and the embankments were built to control it.
12. The Valmiki Tiger Reserve is in which district of Bihar?
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Answer: (D) West Champaran
Valmiki National Park and Tiger Reserve lies in West Champaran district on the Nepal border; it is Bihar's only tiger reserve.
13. Bihar's highest peak, Someshwar, is in the:
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Answer: (A) Shivalik range in West Champaran
Someshwar (about 880 m) in the Shivalik hills of West Champaran is the highest point in Bihar.
14. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of these states?
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Answer: (B) Jharkhand
The Tropic of Cancer crosses Jharkhand (near Ranchi), not Bihar. It passes through eight states from Gujarat to Mizoram.
15. Which soil covers the largest part of Bihar?
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Answer: (C) Alluvial soil
Almost the whole state lies in the Gangetic plain, so alluvial soil dominates; the old alluvium (bhangar) and new alluvium (khadar) differ in fertility.
16. Which district of Bihar has the highest population density according to Census 2011?
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Answer: (D) Sheohar
Sheohar (1,880 per sq km) has the highest density, followed by Patna (1,803); the state average is 1,106, the highest of any state.
17. The Kanwar Lake (Kabar Tal), India's largest freshwater oxbow lake and a Ramsar site, is in:
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Answer: (A) Begusarai
Kabar Tal in Begusarai district became Bihar's first Ramsar site in 2020; Nagi and Nakti dams in Jamui followed in 2024.
18. The Son river joins the Ganga near:
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Answer: (B) Danapur (Maner)
The Son, rising at Amarkantak, meets the Ganga near Maner, west of Patna. It is the largest southern tributary of the Ganga in Bihar.
19. Which of these is NOT a tributary of the Ganga from the north in Bihar?
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Answer: (C) Punpun
The Punpun rises in Chhotanagpur and joins the Ganga from the south near Fatuha; Gandak, Bagmati and Kosi come from Nepal to the north.
20. The Bihar Agro-climatic Zone III-A covers mainly:
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Answer: (D) South Bihar alluvial plain
Bihar has three agro-climatic zones: Zone I (north-west), Zone II (north-east) and Zone III (south Bihar), split into III-A (south-west) and III-B (south-east).
Part I: Polity and education law10 questions
21. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 came into force on:
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Answer: (A) 1 April 2010
The RTE Act was passed in August 2009 and came into force on 1 April 2010, making elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21A for children aged 6 to 14.
22. Article 21A was inserted in the Constitution by the:
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Answer: (B) 86th Amendment
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A (right to education), amended Article 45 and added the fundamental duty 51A(k) for parents.
23. Under the RTE Act, the pupil-teacher ratio prescribed for classes I to V is:
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Answer: (C) 30:1
The Schedule to the RTE Act prescribes 30:1 for classes I to V (two teachers for up to 60 children) and 35:1 for classes VI to VIII.
24. The Bihar Panchayati Raj Act was enacted in:
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Answer: (D) 2006
The Bihar Panchayat Raj Act, 2006 replaced the 1993 Act and provided 50 per cent reservation for women, the first state to do so.
25. Education is a subject in which list of the Seventh Schedule?
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Answer: (A) Concurrent List
Education was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, so both Parliament and state legislatures can make laws on it.
26. Who administers the oath of office to the Governor of a state?
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Answer: (B) The Chief Justice of the High Court
Under Article 159 the Chief Justice of the High Court (or the senior-most judge available) administers the Governor's oath.
27. The Bihar Legislative Council has how many members?
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Answer: (C) 75
The Vidhan Parishad has 75 members; the Vidhan Sabha has 243. Bihar is one of six states with a bicameral legislature.
28. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the fundamental duties?
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Answer: (D) Article 51A
Article 51A lists eleven fundamental duties; ten were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976) and the eleventh, on education of children, by the 86th Amendment (2002).
29. The National Education Policy 2020 replaces the 10+2 structure with:
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Answer: (A) 5+3+3+4
NEP 2020 proposes a 5+3+3+4 design: foundational (ages 3 to 8), preparatory (8 to 11), middle (11 to 14) and secondary (14 to 18).
30. A money bill in a state legislature can be introduced only in the:
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Answer: (B) Legislative Assembly
Under Article 198 a money bill is introduced only in the Legislative Assembly, on the Governor's recommendation; the Council can only delay it by 14 days.
Part I: Economy, schemes and current affairs10 questions
31. According to the Bihar Economic Survey 2025-26, the state's economy grew in 2024-25 at a nominal rate of about:
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Answer: (C) 13.1 per cent
The Survey put Bihar's GSDP at Rs 9.92 lakh crore in 2024-25 at current prices, growing 13.1 per cent in nominal terms, with services at 54.8 per cent of the economy.
32. The "Mukhyamantri Kanya Utthan Yojana" of Bihar provides:
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Answer: (D) Financial support to girls from birth to graduation
Kanya Utthan Yojana gives staged payments from birth to graduation to encourage girls' education; the bicycle and uniform schemes are separate.
33. Mid-Day Meal scheme has been renamed as:
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Answer: (A) PM POSHAN
In 2021 the Mid-Day Meal scheme became PM POSHAN (Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman), covering classes I to VIII and pre-primary (bal vatika).
34. Which sector has the largest share in Bihar's Gross State Domestic Product?
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Answer: (B) Services
Services (tertiary sector) account for about 55 per cent of Bihar's GSDP; agriculture and allied activities about 18 per cent and industry about 27 per cent (Economic Survey 2025-26).
35. The Jeevika programme of Bihar is implemented by:
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Answer: (C) Bihar Rural Livelihoods Promotion Society
Jeevika is run by the Bihar Rural Livelihoods Promotion Society under the Rural Development Department, organising women into self-help groups since 2006.
36. Samagra Shiksha, the centrally sponsored scheme for school education, merges which earlier schemes?
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Answer: (D) SSA, RMSA and Teacher Education
Samagra Shiksha (2018) subsumed Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and the Teacher Education scheme into one programme from pre-school to class XII.
37. The Union Budget 2026-27 was presented by the Finance Minister on:
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Answer: (A) 1 February 2026
Since 2017 the Union Budget has been presented on 1 February; the 2026-27 budget followed the same date.
38. Which institution is the apex body for planning in Bihar's rural credit through cooperatives?
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Answer: (B) Bihar State Cooperative Bank
The Bihar State Cooperative Bank sits at the top of the state's three-tier cooperative credit structure, refinanced by NABARD.
39. "Saat Nishchay-2" of the Bihar government (2020 to 2025) includes:
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Answer: (C) Swachh Gaon, Samriddh Gaon
Saat Nishchay-2 includes Sashakt Mahila, Swachh Gaon Samriddh Gaon, Swachh Shahar, Sulabh Sampark and others; Har Ghar Nal ka Jal and the Student Credit Card were in the first Saat Nishchay.
40. The literacy rate of Bihar according to Census 2011 was:
Show answer
Answer: (D) 61.8 per cent
Bihar recorded 61.8 per cent literacy in 2011 (71.2 male, 51.5 female), the lowest among states; the national figure was 74.0 per cent.
Part I: General science10 questions
41. Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
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Answer: (A) Vitamin A
Vitamin A (retinol) is needed for rhodopsin in the retina; its deficiency causes night blindness and xerophthalmia, which is why schools give vitamin A supplements.
42. The normal range of human blood pH is about:
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Answer: (B) 7.35 to 7.45
Blood is slightly alkaline, held at 7.35 to 7.45 by buffers; below 7.35 is acidosis.
43. Which gas is used in the manufacture of vanaspati ghee from vegetable oils?
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Answer: (C) Hydrogen
Hydrogenation adds hydrogen to unsaturated oils in the presence of a nickel catalyst to make them solid.
44. The unit of electrical resistance is the:
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Answer: (D) Ohm
Resistance is measured in ohms; one ohm is the resistance through which one volt drives one ampere.
45. Iodised salt is recommended to prevent:
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Answer: (A) Goitre
Iodine deficiency causes goitre and affects children's mental development; India mandates iodisation of edible salt.
46. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
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Answer: (B) Natural gas
Natural gas is a fossil fuel formed over millions of years; solar, wind and biogas are renewable.
47. The disease dengue is transmitted by the mosquito:
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Answer: (C) Aedes aegypti
Aedes aegypti, a day-biting mosquito that breeds in clean stored water, spreads dengue and chikungunya; Anopheles carries malaria.
48. ISRO's Chandrayaan-3 landed near the Moon's south pole on:
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Answer: (D) 23 August 2023
The Vikram lander touched down on 23 August 2023, now observed as National Space Day; Aditya-L1 was launched on 2 September 2023.
49. Which blood group is called the universal donor?
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Answer: (A) O negative
O negative red cells carry neither A, B nor Rh antigens, so they can be given to any recipient in an emergency.
50. The process by which plants lose water vapour through stomata is called:
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Answer: (B) Transpiration
Transpiration is the loss of water vapour mainly through leaf stomata; it drives the upward movement of water in the plant.
Part II: Child development and learning15 questions
51. According to Piaget, a child who can think logically about concrete objects but not about abstract ideas is in the:
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Answer: (C) Concrete operational stage
The concrete operational stage (about 7 to 11 years) brings conservation, classification and reversibility with concrete material; abstract and hypothetical thinking comes in the formal operational stage.
52. The "zone of proximal development" is a concept given by:
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Answer: (D) Lev Vygotsky
Vygotsky defined the ZPD as the gap between what a child can do alone and what the child can do with guidance; scaffolding by the teacher works in this zone.
53. Kohlberg's theory is concerned with the development of:
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Answer: (A) Moral reasoning
Lawrence Kohlberg described three levels of moral development (pre-conventional, conventional and post-conventional) with two stages each.
54. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation?
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Answer: (B) Reading because the story is interesting
Intrinsic motivation comes from interest in the activity itself; prizes, punishment and ranks are extrinsic.
55. Erikson's psychosocial stage for children aged 6 to 12 years is:
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Answer: (C) Industry versus inferiority
In the school years children develop competence (industry) through achievement; repeated failure breeds inferiority. Identity versus role confusion is adolescence.
56. Howard Gardner is known for the theory of:
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Answer: (D) Multiple intelligences
Gardner proposed eight or more intelligences (linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, musical, bodily-kinaesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, naturalist), which supports varied teaching methods.
57. According to Vygotsky, the most important tool of cognitive development is:
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Answer: (A) Language and social interaction
Vygotsky held that higher mental functions develop through social interaction mediated by language; private speech later becomes inner thought.
58. Learning by observing and imitating a model is the basis of the theory of:
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Answer: (B) Bandura
Albert Bandura's social learning theory, shown in the Bobo doll experiment, explains learning through observation, imitation and modelling.
59. The "law of effect" was propounded by:
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Answer: (C) Thorndike
Thorndike's law of effect states that responses followed by satisfaction are strengthened; his other laws are readiness and exercise.
60. A child of class II who writes "b" for "d" and "was" as "saw" may have:
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Answer: (D) Dyslexia
Reversals of letters and words are a common sign of dyslexia, a specific learning disability in reading; dyscalculia concerns numbers and dysgraphia writing.
61. Which of the following best describes "readiness" in learning?
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Answer: (A) Maturity and preparedness to learn a given task
Readiness means the child has the maturity, prior learning and motivation needed for a new task; teaching before readiness produces frustration.
62. The term "adolescence" refers roughly to the age group:
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Answer: (B) 12 to 18 years
Adolescence spans puberty to adulthood, about 12 to 18 years, marked by rapid physical growth, identity formation and peer influence.
63. Heredity and environment in child development are:
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Answer: (C) Interacting influences
Development is the product of interaction between genetic endowment and environment; the same heredity produces different outcomes in different settings.
64. Individual differences among learners mean that the teacher should:
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Answer: (D) Use varied methods and materials
Children differ in ability, interest, pace and background; differentiated instruction, varied activities and flexible grouping respond to these differences.
65. Which is the correct order of language skills as children normally acquire them?
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Answer: (A) Listening, speaking, reading, writing
LSRW: children listen and speak before they read and write, so early classes should begin with oral work.
Part II: Pedagogy, curriculum and assessment15 questions
66. Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) was introduced under the:
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Answer: (B) RTE Act 2009
Section 29 of the RTE Act requires continuous and comprehensive evaluation of the child's understanding and ability to apply knowledge, in place of a single terminal examination.
67. Formative assessment is conducted:
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Answer: (C) During teaching to improve learning
Formative assessment is assessment for learning, carried out during instruction to give feedback; summative assessment measures achievement at the end.
68. The "no detention" provision of the RTE Act originally applied to:
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Answer: (D) Classes I to VIII
Section 16 barred detention in classes I to VIII; the 2019 amendment let states hold back children who fail re-examinations in classes V and VIII.
69. Which of the following is a child-centred teaching method?
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Answer: (A) Project method
The project method (Kilpatrick) lets children plan and carry out purposeful activities; it is learner-centred, unlike lecture and dictation.
70. The National Curriculum Framework 2005 recommended that learning should be:
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Answer: (B) Connected to the child's life outside school
NCF 2005 asked for connecting knowledge to life outside school, shifting from rote methods, enriching the curriculum beyond textbooks and making examinations flexible.
71. "Nipun Bharat" mission aims at:
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Answer: (C) Foundational literacy and numeracy by grade 3
NIPUN Bharat (2021), under NEP 2020, aims for every child to attain foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of grade 3 (target year 2026-27).
72. Bloom's taxonomy of educational objectives in the cognitive domain begins with:
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Answer: (D) Knowledge (remembering)
Bloom's original levels run from knowledge, comprehension and application to analysis, synthesis and evaluation; the revised version ends with "create".
73. In a multigrade classroom the most suitable approach is:
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Answer: (A) Peer learning and group activities with self-learning material
Multigrade teaching works through grouping, peer tutoring, activity cards and self-learning material so that every grade is engaged.
74. Inclusive education means:
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Answer: (B) Educating all children, including those with special needs, together in regular schools
Inclusion, required by the RTE Act and the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016, educates children with special needs alongside others with appropriate support.
75. A teacher who uses a child's mistakes as a starting point for teaching is practising:
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Answer: (C) Constructivist teaching
Constructivism treats errors as windows into the child's thinking; the teacher builds on them rather than merely marking them wrong.
76. The medium of instruction recommended by NEP 2020 up to at least grade 5 is:
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Answer: (D) The home language or mother tongue
NEP 2020 recommends the home language, mother tongue or regional language as the medium wherever possible until grade 5, and preferably till grade 8.
77. Which teaching aid is most suitable for teaching the concept of fractions in class III?
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Answer: (A) Paper folding and cutting
Concrete manipulatives such as paper folding let children see halves and quarters; abstract definitions come later (concrete to abstract).
78. Remedial teaching is meant for:
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Answer: (B) Children who have fallen behind in specific skills
Remedial teaching diagnoses the specific gaps of children who lag behind and teaches them again with different methods.
79. The "school readiness" or Vidya Pravesh module under NEP 2020 is a:
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Answer: (C) Three-month play-based programme for children entering class I
Vidya Pravesh is a three-month play-based school preparation module for class I entrants, developed by NCERT in 2021.
80. Which of the following is the best way to maintain discipline in a primary classroom?
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Answer: (D) Engaging activities and clear routines
The RTE Act bans physical punishment and mental harassment; discipline comes from engagement, routines and positive reinforcement.
Part II: School management and leadership20 questions
81. Under the RTE Act, a School Management Committee must have what proportion of parents or guardians?
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Answer: (A) Three-fourths
Section 21 requires that three-fourths of SMC members be parents or guardians, with proportionate representation of disadvantaged groups and half the members women.
82. The School Management Committee prepares the:
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Answer: (B) School Development Plan
Under Section 22 the SMC prepares the School Development Plan, which is the basis for grants, and monitors the school's working and mid-day meals.
83. The minimum number of working days prescribed by the RTE Act for classes I to V is:
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Answer: (C) 200
The Schedule prescribes 200 working days (800 instructional hours) for classes I to V and 220 days (1,000 hours) for classes VI to VIII.
84. The Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) is used for:
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Answer: (D) Collecting school data every year
UDISE+ is the Ministry of Education's annual database of schools, enrolment, teachers and infrastructure, the basis of planning and the ASER-style indicators.
85. The head of a school should prepare the annual time-table so that:
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Answer: (A) Difficult subjects are taught when children are fresh
Good time-tabling places demanding subjects early, alternates types of activity, balances teacher loads and protects time for games and library.
86. A head teacher finds that enrolment of girls falls sharply after class V. The most effective first step is to:
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Answer: (B) Meet parents through the SMC and identify the reasons
Diagnosing the cause with the community (distance, safety, toilets, household work) through the SMC lets the school act and seek help under schemes such as Kanya Utthan.
87. The "Bihar Education Project Council" is the state agency for implementing:
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Answer: (C) Samagra Shiksha
BEPC implements Samagra Shiksha (earlier SSA and RMSA) in Bihar; the Bihar School Examination Board conducts board examinations.
88. School Health and Wellness Ambassadors under Ayushman Bharat are:
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Answer: (D) Two teachers per school trained to deliver health education
The School Health Programme trains two teachers per school as Health and Wellness Ambassadors to take weekly sessions on health, nutrition and safety.
89. Which of the following is the best indicator of a school's effectiveness?
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Answer: (A) Learning outcomes and regular attendance of children
Effectiveness is judged by what children learn and whether they attend and stay; inputs such as buildings matter only as means to that end.
90. Action research by a teacher means:
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Answer: (B) Systematic study of a classroom problem to improve one's own practice
Action research is a teacher's own cyclical inquiry (plan, act, observe, reflect) into a practical problem such as poor attendance or weak reading.
91. The learning outcomes document for the elementary stage was published by:
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Answer: (C) NCERT
NCERT published class-wise Learning Outcomes in 2017, which were notified under the RTE rules so that states could measure them.
92. "Safe school" practices require that a primary school should:
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Answer: (D) Have a child protection policy, emergency contacts and regular safety drills
Guidelines from the NCPCR and the Ministry of Education ask schools for child protection policies, disaster drills, first aid, safe transport and a complaint mechanism.
93. The annual "Performance Grading Index" grades:
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Answer: (A) States and districts on school education
PGI, published by the Ministry of Education, grades states and union territories (and since 2021 districts) on outcomes, access, infrastructure, equity and governance.
94. In the Bihar school system, the "Prakhand Shiksha Padadhikari" is the:
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Answer: (B) Block Education Officer
The Block Education Officer (BEO) supervises schools in a block under the District Education Officer; the Cluster Resource Centre coordinator supports a cluster of schools.
95. Guidance and counselling in school mainly aims to:
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Answer: (C) Help children understand themselves and make informed choices
Guidance helps children with educational, vocational and personal adjustment through information, counselling and follow-up, not by imposing decisions.
96. "Diagnostic test" in teaching is used to:
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Answer: (D) Find the specific weaknesses of a learner
A diagnostic test identifies exactly which concepts or skills a child has not mastered so that remedial teaching can be planned.
97. The Mid-Day Meal (PM POSHAN) in a primary school should provide at least:
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Answer: (A) 450 calories and 12 g protein
Norms are 450 calories and 12 g protein for primary (classes I to V) and 700 calories and 20 g protein for upper primary.
98. A head teacher receives a complaint that a teacher beat a child. The correct response is to:
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Answer: (B) Record it, counsel the teacher, inform the SMC and follow the RTE ban on corporal punishment
Section 17 of the RTE Act prohibits physical punishment and mental harassment, and the head must act on complaints under the school's child protection policy.
99. Which of the following best promotes community participation in a government school?
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Answer: (C) Regular SMC meetings, open days and sharing the school development plan
Transparency and regular engagement through the SMC, parent-teacher meetings and open days build ownership of the school in the community.
100. "Chetna Satra" in Bihar government schools refers to:
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Answer: (D) The morning assembly with prayer, news and activities
Chetna Satra is the morning assembly period in Bihar schools, used for prayer, the national anthem, news, moral talk and physical activity.
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Will there be a BPSC Head Teacher exam in 2026 or 2027?
As of 6 November 2026, BPSC has not issued a new advertisement for either post, and neither appears in its 2026 exam calendar. The 2024 recruitment filled most of the posts: by December 2025 the Education Department had appointed 28,748 head teachers and 4,699 head masters from those results. The school recruitment of 2026 is TRE 4.0 (Advt. 14/2026, 32,388 teacher posts), which has no head teacher or head master posts. The history suggests a gap of about two years between rounds (2022, 2024), so the next advertisement is possible in 2026-27; this page will be updated when it comes.
Two things will differ in a new exam. First, BPSC’s Option E rule: since June 2026 every objective paper has a fifth bubble, E for Not attempted, and a question left blank costs one-third of a mark, as does a wrong answer. In the 2024 papers option E meant “none of the above or more than one of the above” and there was no negative marking. Second, the eligibility rules may change with the service rules; check the advertisement rather than the 2024 conditions above. The negative marking page explains the new scoring with worked examples.
Frequently asked questions
What is the exam pattern of the BPSC Head Teacher exam?
In the 2024 exam: 150 objective questions for 150 marks in 2 hours 30 minutes, with Part I General Studies (75 questions) and Part II on the D.El.Ed syllabus (75 questions). There was no negative marking. The Head Master paper had 100 General Studies and 50 B.Ed questions.
What was the BPSC Head Teacher cut-off in 2024?
67 out of 150 for Unreserved candidates, 61 for BC, 59 for EBC, 49 for SC and 48 for EWS, ST, most women’s categories and candidates with disabilities, according to the result notice of 1 November 2024. The Head Master cut-off was 85 for Unreserved.
Is there negative marking in the BPSC Head Teacher exam?
There was none in the 2024 Head Teacher and Head Master exams; the 2022 Head Master exam deducted 0.25 per wrong answer. Any exam held after June 2026 follows BPSC’s Option E rule: one-third of a mark is deducted for a wrong answer and for a question left blank, and E must be marked to skip a question without penalty.
When is the next BPSC Head Teacher vacancy?
No new Head Teacher or Head Master advertisement had been issued as of 6 November 2026, and none is in BPSC’s 2026 calendar. The last recruitments were advertised in March 2024 and examined on 28 and 29 June 2024.
Related pages
- Free mock tests for other BPSC exams: Auditor, LDC, ASO, DSO and more
- BPSC TRE 4.0 (2026): exam pattern, syllabus and practice tests
- Free BPSC mock test series: all tests
- BPSC negative marking and the Option E rule
- BPSC syllabus and exam pattern 2026
- Bihar special mock test: 100 Bihar GK questions
Sources
Checked 6 November 2026. The cut-offs and headcounts are read from BPSC’s own result PDFs; the pattern is from the 2024 question booklets; eligibility and dates are from news reports of the advertisements.
- BPSC: Result and cut-off, Head Teacher in primary schools, Advt. 25/2024 (1 November 2024)
- BPSC: Result and cut-off, Head Master in higher secondary schools, Advt. 26/2024 (1 November 2024)
- Scroll, 17 June 2024: BPSC Head Teacher and Head Master exam schedule
- Careers360 (Hindi), 11 March 2024: Head Master recruitment 2024, pattern and no negative marking
- Careers360, 2 March 2024: eligibility and pay for both posts
- Business Standard, 5 August 2022: Head Master exam 2022 result
- Indian Masterminds, 30 December 2025: head teachers and head masters appointed
- Patna Press, 1 May 2026: BPSC’s Option E rule